JKPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - JKPSC KAS (Jammu and Kashmir) (2024)

Option (b) is the correct answer. In 2018, for the first time ever the New South Wales Parliament in Sydney, Australia celebrated the ethnic festival of Bathukamma.

Statement 1 is not correct: Bathukamma which means ‘Mother Goddess come Alive’ is a colourful floral festival of Telangana.

Statement 2 is correct: Bathukamma is a beautiful flower stack of different unique seasonal flowers, most of them with medicinal value, arranged in seven concentric layers in the shape of temple gopuram. Women gather and dance around this flower stack. They also sing Bathukamma songs while dancing. It is the festival for feminine felicitation.

On this special occasion women dress up in the traditional sari combining it with jewels and other accessories The final day of Bathukamma, known as Pedha or Saddula Bathukamma falls two days before Dussehra and is also known as Durgashtami. Bathukamma festival indicates the beginning of Sarad or Sharath Ruthu whereas Boddemma festival followed by Bathukamma marks the ending of Varsha Ruthu.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Temple premises in Nagara style generally does not have elaborate walls and gateways. In contrast, Dravida style has elaborate walls and gateways around temple premises.

• Statement 2 is correct: Images of river goddess Ganga and Yamuna were placed outside the garbhagriha.

• Statement 3 is correct: In Nagara style, Temple premises do not have water tank or reservoir inside the temple premises. Whereas in Dravida style, water tanks or reservoirs are present in the temple premises.

About Nagara style of Temple Architecture:

• Nagara is the style of temple architecture which became popular in Northern India.

• It is common here to build an entire temple on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.

• Unlike in south India, it doesn’t usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.

• Earliest temples had only one shikhara (tower), but in the later periods multiple shikharas came.

• The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.

Both the statements are correct.

As the rulers of the Mahajanapadas were (a) building huge forts (b) maintaining big armies, they needed more resources. And they needed officials to collect these. So, instead of depending on occasional gifts brought by people, as in the case of the raja of the janapadas, they started collecting regular taxes.

Following taxes were imposed -

• Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share.

• There were taxes on crafts persons as well. These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to work for a day every month for the king.

• Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce.

• There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade.

• The hunters and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja.

• The Chera kingdom of Mahodayapuram was established in the ninth century in the south-western part of the peninsula, part of present-day Kerala. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is likely that Malayalam was spoken in this area.
• The rulers introduced the Malayalam language and script in their inscriptions.
• In fact, this is one of the earliest examples of the use of a regional language in official records in the subcontinent.

Tulsidas, also known as Goswami Tulsidas, was a Ramanandi Vaishnava Hindu saint and poet, renowned for his devotion to the deity Rama. He wrote several popular works in Sanskrit and Awadhi, but is best known as the author of the Hanuman Chalisa and of the epic Ramcharitmanas, a retelling of the Sanskrit Ramayana based on Rama's life in the vernacular Awadhi.
The five major works of Tulsidas apart from Ramcharitmanas include:
Dohavali literally Collection of Dohas, is a work consisting of 573 miscellaneous Doha

1. and Sortha verses mainly in Braja with some verses in Awadhi. The verses are aphorisms on topics related to tact, political wisdom, righteousness and the purpose of life. 85 Dohas from this work are also found in the Ramcharitmanas, 35 in Ramagya Prashna, two in Vairagya Sandipani and some in Rama Satsai, another work of 700 Dohas attributed to Tulsidas. Sahitya Ratna or ratna Ramayan (1608–1614), literally Collection of Kavittas, is a Braja
2. rendering of the Ramayana, composed entirely in metres of the Kavitta family – Kavitta, Savaiya, Ghanakshari and Chhappaya. It consists of 325 verses including 183 verses in the Uttarkand. Like the Ramcharitmanas, it is divided into seven Kands or books and many episodes in this work are different from the Ramcharitmanas. Gitavali literally Collection of Songs, is a Braja rendering of the Ramayana in songs. All
3. the verses are set to Ragas of Hindustani classical music and are suitable for singing. It consists of 328 songs divided into seven Kands or books. Many episodes of the Ramayana are elaborated while many others are abridged. Krishna Gitavali or Krishnavali literally Collection of Songs to Krishna, is a collection of 61
4. songs in honour of Krishna in Braja. There are 32 songs devoted to the childhood sports (Balalila) and Rasa Lila of Krishna, 27 songs form the dialogue between Krishna and Uddhava, and two songs describe the episode of disrobing of Draupadi. Vinaya Patrika literally Petition of Humility, is a Braja work consisting of 279 stanzas or
5. hymns. The stanzas form a petition in the court of Rama asking for Bhakti. It is considered to be the second best work of Tulsidas after the Ramcharitmanas, and is regarded as important from the viewpoints of philosophy, erudition, and eulogistic and poetic style of Tulsidas. The first 43 hymns are addressed to various deities and Rama's courtiers and attendants, and remaining are addressed to Rama.

Battle of Khanwa (1527)

• Babur, the Mughal emperor, decided to take on Rana Sanga of Chittor, the Rajput ruler of Mewar. The Rana had a strong influence over Rajasthan and Malwa.
• The ferocious march of Rana Sanga, with force strengthened by Afghan Muslims, Mahmud Lodi, brother of Ibrahim Lodi, and Hasan Khan Mewati, ruler of Mewat, confronted the forces of Babur. With strategic positioning of forces and effective use of artillery, Babur defeated Rana Sanga’s forces. The capture of forts at Gwalior and Dholpur followed this victory.

Battle of Ghagra (1529)

• The battle was the last battle Babar fought against the Afghans. Mahmud Lodi and Sultan Nusrat Shah, son-in-law of Ibrahim Lodi, conspired against Babur.
• Realizing the danger, Babar marched against them. In the battle that ensued along the banks of Ghagra, a tributary of the Ganges, Babur defeated the Afghans. But he died on his way from Agra to Lahore in 1530.

Battle of Talikota (1565)

• The battle was fought at Talikota or Rakshasi-Tangadi in January 1565, in which Ramaraya (a great warrior and strategist), despite his old age, personally commanded the forces along with his cousins and brothers. In the final stages, the battle was lost. Rama Raya was imprisoned and executed immediately.
• The victorious Bahmani armies entered the Vijayanagar city for the first time in their History and ransacked it for several months laying it to waste. This battle is generally considered a signal for the beginning of the disintegration of the Vijayanagar Empire as the Nayakas became more independent of central authority.

Battle of Haldighati (1576)

• It was the last pitched battle between the Mughal forces and Rana Pratap Singh. In Marwar (Jodhpur), the ruler Chandra Sen, son of Maldeo Rathore, resisted the Mughals till his death in 1581, though his brothers fought on the side of the Mughals.
• Udai Singh, the brother of Chandra Sen, was made the ruler of Jodhpur by Akbar.

• In Jainism, the three jewels (also referred to as ratnatraya or tri-ratna) are understood as samyagdarshana ('right faith'), samyagjnana ('right knowledge), and samyakcharitra ('right action').
• One of the three cannot exist exclusive of the others, and all are required for spiritual liberation i.e. attainment of freedom from worldly bonds.
• Right faith is the belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Right Knowledge is the acceptance of the theory that there is no God and that the world has been existing without a creator and that all objects possess a soul. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Right conduct refers to the observance of the five great vows: - Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • not to injure life
  • not to lie
  • not to steal
  • not to acquire property o
  • not to lead immoral life

• Abul Fazl’s Akbarnamah and Ain-e- Akbari are fine piece of literature. From there we get a good deal of information about Akbar and his times.

• Minhaj-us-Siraj was a historian who was patronized by Slave Sultan Nasir- ud-din Mahmud to whom he dedicated his magnum opus Tabaqat- i-Nasiri.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

As the Chola dynasty declined in the thirteenth century, the Vijayanagar dynasty captured and brought under its control the region from Hampi to Trichy.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. In Hampi, the Virupaksha temple has paintings on the ceiling of its mandapa narrating events from dynastic history and episodes from the Ramayana and the Mahabharata. Among important panels the mural of Vidyaranya, teacher of Bukkaraya Harsha, being carried in a palanquin is very well made.

In Lepakshi, Vijaynagar paintings can be found on the walls of the Shiva temple. In keeping with the tradition the Vijayanagar painters evolved a pictorial language wherein the faces are shown in profile and figures and objects two dimensionally. Lines become still but fluid, compositions appear in rectilinear compartments. These stylistic conventions were adopted by artists in various centres in South India as can be seen in the paintings of the Nayaka period.

Pherozeshah Mehta is an Indian political leader, planner of the municipal charter for Bombay and founder of the English-language newspaper Bombay Chronicle. He presided over the sixth session of the Indian National Congress in 1890. He had a major role in the establishment of a Swadeshi bank i.e. the Central Bank of India.

Surendranath Banerjea is one of important moderate political leader. He founded the Indian National Association, through which he led two sessions of the Indian National Conference in 1883 and 1885, along with Anandamohan Bose. He founded a new organization named Indian National Liberation Federation in 1919. He was editor of “The Bengali” newspaper. Written in the last years of Sir Surendranath Banerjea s life, A Nation in Making is not only the autobiography of a pioneering leader in Indian politics but also a commentary on public life.

Option (b) is the correct answer. Statement 1 is incorrect. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses. Statement 2 is correct. As per the Wood’s dispatch, the medium of instruction at the primary level was to be vernacular while at the higher levels it would be English.

Statement 3 is correct. It highlighted female education, vocational education and teachers training KB) Other recommendations: It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo- Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

● It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.

● It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise.

Option d is correct

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Delhi durbar of 1877 was not announced by Lord Canning. It was largely an official event not a popular occasion with mass appeal like 1903 and 1911.It was organized by Lytton, The then Viceroy of India. Lord Canning announced Queen’s proclamation at a durbar at Allahabad in 1858 according to which, the era of annexations and expansion had ended and the British promised to respect the dignity and rights of the native princes.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian states were henceforth to recognize the paramountcy of the British crown and were treated as parts of a single charge as a part of Queen’s proclamation announced at durbar held at Allahabad in 1858 and not the 1877 Delhi Durbar.

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Queen’s proclamation of 1858 promised equal and impartial protection under law to all Indians, besides equal opportunities in government services irrespective of race or creed. It was also promised that old Indian rights, customs and practices would be given due regard while framing and administering the law.

• The Delhi durbar of 1877 gave a new title” Qaisar-I-Hind, the Empress of India to British monarch- Queen Victoria. Delhi durbar was held 3 times in the old Mughal capital of Delhi, first in 1877, and then again in 1903 and 1911.

• By the 18th century, the Portuguese in India lost their commercial influence, though some of them still carried on trade in their individual capacity and many took to piracy and robbery. The decline of the Portuguese was brought about by several factors.

  • The local advantages gained by the Portuguese in India were reduced with the emergence of powerful dynasties in Egypt, Persia, and North India and the rise of the turbulent Marathas as their immediate neighbors. (The Marathas captured Salsette and Bassein in 1739 from the Portuguese).

  • The population of Portuguese was less than a million, its Court was autocratic and decadent, its merchants enjoyed much less power and prestige than its landed aristocrats. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • They followed a policy of religious intolerance. The religious policies of the Portuguese, such as the activities of the Jesuits, gave rise to political fears. Their antagonism for the Muslims apart, the Portuguese policy of conversion to Christianity made Hindus also resentful. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • The earlier monopoly of knowledge of the sea route to India held by the Portuguese could not remain a secret forever; soon enough the Dutch and the English, who were learning the skills of ocean navigation, also learned it and outshined the Portuguese. They lagged behind in the development of shipping as compared to other European powers. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • As new trading communities from Europe arrived in India, there began a fierce rivalry among them. In this struggle, the Portuguese had to give way to the more powerful and enterprising competitors. The Dutch and the English had greater resources and more compulsions to expand overseas, and they overcame the Portuguese resistance.

Gandhi founded the All-India Village Industries Association in Wardha in 1934. Jamnalal Bajaj hasdonated considerable land and buildings to the All-India Village Industries Association. Gandhi organizedthe first All-India Village Industries Exhibition in Indore in 1935.

• Gandhiji started experiments in rural lifestyles, such as the revival of village crafts and agro-processingindustries, village cleanliness, diet reforms, etc., so that villages could be developed as ideal surroundingsto live in. So, Option (a) is not correct.
• On 30 September 1932, Gandhi founded the All India Anti Untouchability League to remove untouchabilityin the society, which was later renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh ("Servants of Harijan Society")Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit organization founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 toeradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and uplifting the Depressed Class ofIndia. So, Option (b) is not correct.
• The federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry was established in 1927. FICCI is the largestand oldest apex business organization in India. Its history is closely interwoven with India's struggle forindependence, industrialization, and emergence as one of the most rapidly growing global economies.A non-government, not-for-profit organisation, FICCI is India's business and industry voice. Frominfluencing policy to encouraging debate, engaging with policy makers and civil society, FICCI articulates the views and concerns of industry. It serves its members from the Indian private and public corporatesectors and multinational companies, drawing its strength from diverse regional chambers of commerceand industry across states, reaching out to over 2,50,000 companies. So, Option (c) is not correct.
• On his return from South Africa, Gandhi's first Ashram in India was established in the Kochrab area ofAhmedabad on 25 May 1915. Gandhi's Kochrab Ashram was located near the city of Ahmedabad in thestate of Gujarat.This ashram was a major center for students of Gandhian ideas to practice satyagraha, self-sufficiency, and Swadeshi, work for the upliftment of the poor, women, and untouchables, and to promotebetter public education and sanitation. The ashram was organized based on human equality. So, Option(d) is correct.

Reforms under Lord Dalhousie –

• Dalhousie’s territorial acquisition transformed the map of India. His greatest achievement was the moulding of the new provinces into a modern centralized state. For the newly acquired territories, he introduced the centralized control called the “Non-Regulation System”.
• Under this system, a Commissioner was appointed for a newly acquired territory. In 1853, he penned his Railway Minute, formulating the future policy of railways in India. He started the “Guarantee System” by which the railway companies were guaranteed a minimum interest of 5% on their investments.
• The government retained the right of buying the railways at the end of the period of contract. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world. Free- trade principles were becoming a passion with the Englishmen of the mid-nineteeth century. The harbours of Karachi, Bombay and Calcutta were developed and a large number of light- houses were constructed.

• Earthquakes are by far the most unpredictable and highly destructive of all the natural disasters. Earthquakes that are of tectonic origin have proved to be the most devastating and their area of influence is also quite large. These earthquakes result from a series of earth movements brought about by a sudden release of energy during the tectonic activities in the earth’s crust.

• As compared to these, the earthquakes associated with volcanic eruptions, rock fall, landslides, subsidence, particularly in the mining areas, impounding of dams and reservoirs, etc. have limited area of influence and the scale of damage. Statement 1 is correct. National Geophysical Laboratory, Geological Survey of India, Department of Meteorology, Government of India, along with the recently formed National Institute of Disaster Management, have made an intensive analysis of more than 1,200 earthquakes that have occurred in India in different years in the past, and based on these, they divided India into the following five earthquake zones:

  I. Very high damage risk zone

  II. High damage risk zone

  III. Moderate damage risk zone

  IV. Low damage risk zone

  V. Very low damage risk zone.

• Out of these, the first two zones had experienced some of the most devastating earthquakes in India. Uttarakhand, Western Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir Valley in the Himalayan region and the Kuchchh (Gujarat) are included in the Very High Damage Risk Zone. The remaining parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Northern parts of Punjab, Eastern parts of Haryana, Delhi, Western Uttar Pradesh, and Northern Bihar fall under the High Damage Risk Zone. Remaining parts of the country fall under moderate to very Low Damage Risk Zone. So, statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Option (d) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct. Erg or stony desert is a sea of sand. Winds deposits vast stretches of undulating sand-dunes in the heart of the desert forming these landscapes. An erg (also sand sea or dune sea, or sand sheet if it lacks dunes) is a broad, flat area of desert covered with wind-swept sand with little or no vegetative cover.

• Statement 2 is correct. Badlands are the Hills which are badly eroded by occasional rain-storms into gullies and ravines. The extent of water action on the hill is so strong that the entire region becomes inhabitable.

• Statement 3 is correct. Mountain Deserts are found on Highlands such as plateaux and mountain ranges. Erosion dissects the desert highlands into harsh, serrated outlines of chaotic peaks and craggy ranges.

• The earth is made up of three different layers: the crust, the mantle and the core.

• The Crust:

  • This is the outside layer of the earth and is made of solid rock, mostly basalt and granite. There are two types of crust; oceanic and continental. Oceanic crust is denser and thinner and mainly composed of basalt. Continental crust is less dense, thicker, and mainly composed of granite.

• In between the crust and the mantle there is Mohorovicic discontinuity.

• The Mantle:

  • The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere.

• The Core:

  • The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. It is called the Gutenberg Discontinuity. The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes referred to as the nife layer.

  • The Core consists of two sub-layers i.e. the inner core and the outer core. The inner core is in solid state and the outer core is in the liquid state (or semi-liquid). The discontinuity between the upper Core and the lower Core is called as Lehmann Discontinuity.

Hence the correct order is 2-3-1.

• Watershed management basically refers to the efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. It involves the prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc.

• However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration, and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land, water, plants, and animals) and humans within a watershed. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Watershed management aims at bringing about a balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of watershed development largely depends upon community participation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Upper, middle and lower are the three courses into which a river valley is divided. Young rivers ( (A) denotes the below picture for the formation of the Young river) close to their source tend to be fast-flowing, high-energy environments with rapid downward and headward erosion, despite the hardness of the rock over which they may flow. The land features carved by a river in its upper course are as follows:

• Gorges,
• Canyons,
• V' shaped valleys,
• Rapids,
• Cataracts, and
• Waterfalls A gorge is a narrow valley with steep, rocky walls between hills or mountains.

The term comes from the French word gorge, which means throat or neck. So, Pair 1 is correct.

Mature rivers or Middle ( (B) denotes the above picture for mature river formation ) are lower-energy systems. Erosion takes place outside bends, creating looping meanders in the soft alluvium of the river plain. Deposition occurs on the inside of the bends and the river bed. Some of the land features formed by a river in its middle course are alluvial fans and meanders. A meander is a bend in the course of a river channel. A meander is formed in the middle course of a river; when the river leaves the mountains, it encounters a sudden slope break and slows down. The plains are broad and gentle. So the river has more time to amble away down to the sea. So, Pair 2 is correct.

Oxbow lakes are formed when the neck of a looping meander is broken through, usually during times of flood. They are U-shaped or curved bends in a river that are cut off from the main river flow, forming a lake. In the lower course of the river, meanders become much more pronounced. The outer or concave bank is so rapidly eroded that the meander becomes almost a complete circle. A time comes when the river cuts through the narrow neck of the loop. The meander, now cut off from the mainstream, takes the form of an oxbow lake. In the lower course or the stage of old age, the land features produced by the river are meanders, flood plains, braided steam, oxbow lakes, deltas and estuaries. So, Pair 3 is correct.

• The rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice a day is called a tide. High tide is when water covers much of the shore by rising to its highest level. It is low tide when water falls to its lowest level and recedes from the shore. A spring tide is popularly known as a "King Tide" and refers to the 'springing forth' of the tide during a new and full moon. During full or new moons, when the Earth, sun, and Moon are nearly in alignment, average tidal ranges are slightly larger. This occurs twice each lunar month (about 29.5 days on average).
• The Moon appears new (dark) between the Earth and the sun. The Moon appears full when the Earth is between the Moon and the sun. This means that high tides are little higher and low tides are a little lower than average. These are called 'spring tides.' The strong gravitational pull exerted by the sun and the Moon on the Earth's surface causes the tides. A neap tide is seven days after a spring tide which refers to a period of moderate tides when the sun and Moon are at right angles to each other. The sun's and moon's combined gravitational force at the right angle in position is a neap tide. A spring tide occurs when the sun, the Moon and the Earth are in the same line. Hence Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. So, Option (c) is correct.

Option (a) is the correct answer.

Fold mountains are created where two or more of Earth’s tectonic plates are pushed together. At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, mountains, and entire mountain ranges.

Fold mountains are created through a process called orogeny. An orogenic event takes millions of years to create a fold mountain, but you can mimic it in seconds. Cover a table with a tablecloth, or place a rug flat on the floor.

Now push the edge of the tablecloth or rug—wrinkles will develop and fold on top of each other.

Statement 1 is correct. Fold Mountains are generally associated with increased load of overlying rocks, flow movements in the mantle, magnetic intrusions into crust, and expansion or contraction of some parts of Earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Fold Mountains are closely associated with volcanic activities. Best example is Circum-Pacific fold Mountains. Most fold mountains are composed primarily of sedimentary rock and metamorphic rock formed under high pressure and relatively low temperatures. Many fold mountains are also formed where an underlying layer of ductile minerals, such as salt, is present.

• Thermosphere: The part of the atmosphere beyond the mesosphere is known as the thermosphere wherein temperature increases rapidly with increasing height.

• It is estimated that the temperature at its upper limit becomes extremely high. This temperature cannot be measured by an ordinary thermometer because the gases become very light due to extremely low density. That is why one does not feel warm when one stretches one’s arm in the air.

• This layer helps in radio transmission. In fact, radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The International Space Station and satellites orbit in this layer. (Though the temperature is high, the atmosphere is extremely rarified – gas molecules are spaced hundreds of kilometers apart. Hence a person or an object in this layer doesn’t feel the heat). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Aurora’s are also observed in lower parts of this layer. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The population of India according to their economic status is divided into three groups, namely; main workers, marginal workers, and non-workers. It is observed that in India, the proportion of workers (both main and marginal) is only 39.8 percent (Census 2011) leaving a vast majority of about 60 percent as non-workers. It is understood that, in the context of a country like India, the work participation rate tends to be higher in the areas of lower levels of economic development since a number of manual workers are needed to perform the subsistence or near subsistence economic activities. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• The occupational composition of India’s population shows a large proportion of primary sector workers compared to secondary and tertiary sectors. As far as the occupation of the country’s male and female population is concerned, male workers outnumber female workers in all three sectors. The number of female workers is relatively high in the primary sector, though in recent years there has been some improvement in the work participation of women in secondary and tertiary sectors. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• Rapid warming in the Arabian Sea results in widespread extreme rains over the Western Ghats and central India since warming induces increased fluctuations in the monsoon winds, with ensuing episodes of enhanced moisture transport from the Arabian Sea towards the Indian subcontinent. The warming of the Arabian sea results from positive Indian Ocean dipole. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• El Nino Modoki brings only fewer cyclones to the Bay of Bengal because one of the two descending limbs of the Walker Cell is over the western Pacific and Bay of Bengal. The descending limb causes dry conditions and is not conducive to cyclone formation. On the other hand, the ascending limb of the Walker Cell brings rain. Also, an El Nino Modoki creates stronger divergence over the western Pacific and Bay of Bengal compared to El Nino. Divergence (opposite of convergence) means surface winds move away from each other, resulting in low relative vorticity (rotational flow of winds). These conditions are not conducive for cyclones. This explains why the Bay of Bengal region has fewer cyclones during an El Nino Modoki. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

• Secondary activities are those activities that involve the manufacturing of finished goods by processing the raw materials that are found in nature.

• Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. Secondary activities are concerned with manufacturing, processing, and construction (infrastructure) industries.

• Cotton in the boll has limited use but after it is transformed into yarn, becomes more valuable and can be used for making clothes. The cotton textile industry involves spinning, weaving, and finishing fabrics.

• Iron ore, cannot be used; directly from the mines, but after being converted into steel it gets its value and can be used for making many valuable machines, tools, etc. Iron is extracted from iron ore by smelting in a blast furnace with carbon (co*ke) and limestone.

• Agro-processing (food processing) involves the processing of raw materials from the field and the farm into finished products for rural and urban markets. Majoragro-processing industries are food processing, sugar, pickles, fruit juices, beverages (tea, coffee, and cocoa), spices and oils fats and textiles (cotton, jute, silk), rubber, etc.

• The mining of Iron ore is a primary activity. Primary activities are directly dependent on the environment as these refer to the utilization of the earth's resources such as land, water, vegetation, building materials, and minerals.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• The earth is composed of various kinds of elements. These elements are in solid form in the outer layer of the earth and in hot and molten form in the interior. About 98 per cent of the total crust of the earth is composed of eight elements like oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium and magnesium, and the rest is constituted by titanium, hydrogen, phosphorous, manganese, sulphur, carbon, nickel and other elements.
• Major elements of earth's crust The elements in the earth’s crust are rarely found exclusively but are usually combined with other elements to make various substances. These substances are recognised as minerals.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Cyclones

• About: A cyclone is any low-pressure area with winds spiralling inwards and is caused by atmospheric disturbances around a low-pressure area It is distinguished by swift and often destructive air circulation. Pattern of circulation: The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Types of Cyclones:
  • Tropical Cyclone: Cyclones that develop in the regions between the Tropics of Capricorn and Cancer are called tropical cyclones. Tropical cyclones are large-scale weather systems developing over tropical or subtropical waters, where they get organised into surface wind circulation.
  • Extra tropical Cyclone (also called Temperate Cyclone): They occur in temperate zones and high latitude regions. In contrast with tropical cyclones, extratropical cyclones produce rapid changes in temperature and dew point along broad lines, called weather fronts, about the center of the cyclone. Hence statement 2 is correct.

After the great revolt of 1857, the British Government felt the necessity of seeking the cooperation of the Indians in the administration of their country.

The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is an important landmark in the constitutional and political history of India.

The features of this Act were as follows:

1. It made a beginning of the representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It, thus, provided that the Viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then Viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council–the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.

2. It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It, thus, reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937.

3. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Provinces and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1886 and 1897, respectively.

4. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council. It also gave a recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).

5. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.

Option (a) is the correct answer.

The justiciability of Fundamental Rights and non-justiciability of Directive Principles on the one hand and the moral obligation of the State to implement Directive Principles (Article 37) on the other hand have led to a conflict between the two since the commencement of the Constitution.

According the the SC judgement in ‘Golaknath Case’ (1967);

1) No law which seeks to implement the socialistic Directive Principles specified in Article 39 (b) 22 and (c) 23 shall be void on the ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before the law and equal protection of laws), Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc) or Article 31 (right to property).

2) No law containing a declaration for giving effect to such policy shall be questioned in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.

Article 39 (b) and (c) of the DPSP. Article 39 (b) states that the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.

Article 39 (c) states that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Statement 1 is correct. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court also held that the present position is that the Fundamental Rights enjoy supremacy over the Directive Principles. Yet, this does not mean that the Directive Principles cannot be implemented. The Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the Directive Principles, so long as the amendment does not damage or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.

• On 29th August 1947, the Constituent Assembly through a resolution appointed a Drafting Committee to scrutinise the draft of the text of the Constitution of India prepared by Constitutional Adviser and to submit to the Assembly for consideration the text of the draft constitution as revised by the committee.

• The Drafting Committee had seven members:

  • Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar;

  • N. Gopalaswami;

  • B.R. Ambedkar;

  • K.M Munshi;

  • Mohammad Saadulla;

  • B.L. Mitter and

  • D.P. Khaitan.

• At its first meeting on 30th August 1947, the Drafting Committee elected B.R Ambedkar as its Chairman.

• Towards the end of October 1947, the Drafting Committee began to scrutinise the Draft Constitution prepared by the B.N Rau, the Constitutional Advisor. It made various changes and submitted the Draft Constitution to the President of the Constituent Assembly on 21st of February 1948.

• Majority of the debates in Constituent Assembly revolved around the Draft Constitution(s) prepared by the Drafting Committee. Out of 165 sitting of the Constituent Assembly, 114 were spent debating the Draft Constitution(s).

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. ‘Negative liberty’ seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual would be inviolable, in which he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’. This is an area in which no external authority can interfere. It is a minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to be interfered with.

The existence of the ‘minimum area of non-interference’ is the recognition that human nature and human dignity need an area where the person can act unobstructed by others.

Statement 2 is correct. Positive liberty recognizes that an individual can be free only in society (not outside it) and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual whereas negative liberty is only concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference and not with the conditions in society, outside this area, as such.

Positive Liberty is concerned with looking at the conditions and nature of the relationship between the individual and society and of improving these conditions such that there are fewer constraints to the development of the individual personality.

• The Motion of Thanks is moved in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, after the President’s Special Address under Article 87(1).
• The Members of the Opposition tried to move an amendment to the Motion of Thanks to the President, citing the government’s failure to handle the COVID- 19 pandemic and alleges the use of the Pegasus spyware. These amendments were rejected by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Article 87 - Special address by the President: Clause (1) of the Article provides that o at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and o at the commencement of the first session of each year, the President shall address both Houses of the Parliament assembled together and inform the Parliament of the causes of its summons.
• Clause 2 of Article 87 mentions that - provision shall be made by the rules regulating the procedure of either House for the allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in such address.
• No other business is transacted till the President has addressed both the Houses of the Parliament assembled together through the Special Address. Scope of Discussion – Motion of Thanks: Rule 17: Discussion on the matters referred to in the President’s Address takes place on a Motion of Thanks moved by a member and seconded by another member.
• Wide Scope of Discussion: The scope of discussion on the Address is very wide and the members are free to speak on all sorts of national or international problems. Matters not mentioned: Even the matters which are not specifically mentioned in the Address are brought into discussion through amendments to the Motion of Thanks.
• Limitations: The only limitations are that the members cannot refer to the matters which are not the direct responsibility of the Central Government and that the name of the President cannot be brought in during the debate, since the Government, and not the President, is responsible for the contents of the Address.

Option (b) is correct:
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

• Admission or establishment of new states.
• Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
• Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
• Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
• Quorum in Parliament.
• Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
• Rules of procedure in Parliament.
• Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
• Use of English language in Parliament.
• Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
• Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
• Use of official language.
• Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
• Delimitation of constituencies.
• Union territories.
• Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
• Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas. The following provisions can be amended by Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States:
• Election of the President and its manner.
• Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
• Supreme Court and high courts.
• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
• Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
• Representation of states in Parliament.
• Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

Freedom of speech and expression is guaranteed under Article 19(1) of the Indian constitution. It implies that every citizen has the right to express his views, opinions, belief, and convictions. The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes the following -:

• Right to propagate one's views as well as views of others.
• Freedom of press
• Freedom of Commercial advertisem*nts
• Right against tapping of telephonic conversation
• Right to telecast
• Freedom of silence
• Right to know about government activities
• Right against the imposition of pre-censorship
• Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike

• The Central Government may, on an application, grant a certificate of naturalisation to any person (not being an illegal migrant) if he possesses the following qualifications:

  • that he is not a subject or citizen of any country where citizens of India are prevented from becoming subjects or citizens of that country by naturalisation.

  • that, if he is a citizen of any country, he undertakes to renounce the citizenship of that country in the event of his application for Indian citizenship being accepted. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • that he has either resided in India or been in the service of a Government in India or partly the one and partly the other, throughout the period of twelve months immediately preceding the date of the application.

  • that during the fourteen years immediately preceding the said period of twelve months, he has either resided in India or been in the service of a Government in India, or partly the one and partly the other, for periods amounting in the aggregate to not less than eleven years. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

  • that he is of good character.

  • that he has an adequate knowledge of a language specified in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • that in the event of a certificate of naturalisation being granted to him, he intends to reside in India or to enter into or continue in, service under a Government in India or under an international organisation of which India is a member or under a society, company or body of persons established in India.

Option (b) is the correct answer.

The Constitution of India stands for a secular state.

Statement 2 is correct. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between religion (the church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multireligious. Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally.

Moreover, the Constitution has also abolished the old system of communal representation 13 , that is, reservation of seats in the legislatures on the basis of religion. However, it provides for the temporary reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to ensure adequate representation to them.

KB) The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:

(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional

Amendment Act of 1976.

(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.

(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).

(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).

(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).

(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).

(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).

(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).

(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).

(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture (Article 29).

(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30).

(l) The State shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a Uniform Civil Code.

• The Constitution of India provides for its amendment in order to adjust itself to the changing conditions and needs. However, the procedure laid down for its amendment is neither as easy as in Britain nor as difficult as in the USA.

• The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:

  • An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.

  • The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission from the President. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.

Gondwana coal makes up to 98% of the total reserves and 99 % of the production of coal in

India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Gondwana coal forms India’s metallurgical grade as well as superior quality coal. Tertiary coalfields are mainly confined to extra-peninsular regions.

Important areas include Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

In News: A recent investigation revealed that more than half of India’s 30 national sports federations do not have an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) which is a legal requirement under the Prevention of
Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act, 2013.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Government of India has enacted ‘the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013’ (POSH Act) with the aim to provide a safe and secure work environment to women.

• It broadened and gave legislative backing to what is known as the Vishaka Guidelines, which were laid down by the Supreme Court in a judgment passed in 1997.
  • It mandated that every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch with 10 or more employees.
  • It lay down procedures and defined various aspects of sexual harassment, including the aggrieved victim, who could be a woman “of any age whether employed or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”.
  • The aggrieved victim under the Act can be a woman “of any age whether employed [at the
  • workplace] or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”.
  • In effect, the Act protects the rights of all women who are working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity.
  • Further, the Prevention of Workplace Sexual Harassment Act applies to both the organized and unorganized sectors in India.
    

New Governors have been appointed recently in 12 states and the Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh. Sarkaria Commission on Office of Governor

Sarkaria Commission made recommendations regarding the appointment of the Governor:

• The Governor should be an eminent person and must be from outside the state.
• The Governor must not have been active in politics in the recent past and when there are different parties in the center and state, the governor should not be from the ruling party at the center.
• The Governor should be appointed in consultation with the Chief Minister of the state, Vice
• President, and Speaker of Lok Sabha.
• The Governor’s tenure of office must be guaranteed.
• M.M. Punchhi Commission
• The appointment of the Governor should be entrusted to a committee comprising the Prime
• Minister, Home Minister, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and Chief Minister of the concerned state.
• The Commission recommended that the doctrine of pleasure should end and be deleted from the constitution.

Option (d) is the correct answer.

Financial markets in every economy are having two separate segments today, one catering to the requirements of Short-term funds and the other to the requirements of long-term funds.

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The short-term financial market is known as the money market, while the long-term financial market is known as the capital market.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The short-term financial market i.e. the money market fulfils the requirements of funds for a period upto 364 days while long-term financial marketi.e.the capital market does the same forthe period above 364days.

Option (c) is the correct answer.

Physical capital implies the non-human assets of the company, such as plant and machinery, tools and equipment, office supplies etc. that help in the process of production.Human capital refers to the stock of knowledge, talent, skills and abilities brought in by the employee, to the organisation. Human capital is intangible and Physical capital is tangible.

Human capital is not sold in the market whereas Physical capital is. Physical capital is completely mobile across countries but Human capital is not. Both forms of capital depreciate over a period of time but the nature of depreciation differs between the two. Continuous use of machines leads to depreciation along with change in technology makes a machine obsolete. In the case of human capital, depreciation takes place with ageing but can be reduced, to a large extent, through continuous investment in education, health, etc.

• Sterilization is intervention by the RBI in the money market to keep the money supply stable against exogenous or sometimes external shocks such as an increase in foreign exchange inflow. It is a form of monetary action in which a central bank seeks to limit the effect of inflows and outflows of capital on the money supply. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The commercial bank’s total reserves and deposits remain unchanged (it has purchased the foreign currency from the seller using its vault cash, which, therefore, goes down; but the bank’s deposit with RBI goes up by an equivalent amount – leaving its total reserves unchanged). Hence statement 2 is correct.

• There will, however, be increments in the assets and liabilities on the RBI balance sheet. RBI’s foreign exchange holding goes up. On the other hand, the deposits of commercial banks with RBI also increase by an equal amount. But that means an increase in the stock of high powered money which, by definition, is equal to the total liability of RBI. With money multiplier in operation, this, in turn, will result in increased money supply in the economy.

• Wholesale Price Index, or WPI, measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses. WPI is unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), which tracks the prices of goods and services purchased by consumers. To put it simply, the WPI tracks prices at the factory gate before the retail level.

• The numbers are released by the Economic Advisor in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry monthly. An upward surge in the WPI print indicates inflationary pressure in the economy and vice versa. The quantum of rising in the WPI month after month is used to measure the level of wholesale inflation in the economy. Hence statement 2 is not correct

• Even as the WPI is used as a key measure of inflation in some economies, the RBI no longer uses WPI for policy purposes, including setting repo rates. The central bank currently uses CPI or retail inflation as a key measure of inflation to set the monetary and credit policy. Hence statement 1 is not correct

• With an aim to align the index with the base year of other important economic indicators such as GDP and IIP, the base year was updated to 2011-12 from 2004-05 for the new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI), effective from April 2017.

• Operation Twist is a monetary policy of the central banks used to bring down interest rates and control investments in a country. Under this operation, the RBI twisted the yield of government securities to bring liquidity into the markets. If the interest rate is low, then the money circulation increases, that leads to increase in purchasing power of people which will lead to more import, whereby it shall not reduce the current account deficit. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The repo rate is used by the central bank of India to control the supply of money in the Indian market. A higher repo rate helps reduce the borrowing power of commercial banks, which, in turn, reduces the cash flow in the market, thereby reducing the purchasing power of consumers. This has a positive impact on the reduction of the Current Account deficit. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• Export subsidies are government payments to exporters to help them develop new sales markets or sell surpluses on the world market to keep the domestic market price stable. A government providing export incentives/ subsidies often does so to keep domestic products competitive in the global market. Reducing the export subsidy reduces a country's exports on the world market, which does not help in the reduction of the current account deficit. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
• Import duties have two distinct purposes: to raise local government income and give a market advantage to locally grown or produced goods that are not subject to import duties. Increasing the import duty would lead to an increase in imports, leading to a low current account deficit. So, Statement 4 is correct.

• Under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), domestic agri-subsidies are classified into three categories; green, blue and amber. Under WTO principles, "amber box" subsidies create trade distortions because they encourage excessive production through farm subsidies to fertilizers, seeds, electricity, and irrigation.
• They are also called as Aggregate Measure of Support. As per the WTO norms, the AMS can be given up to 10 % of a country’s agricultural GDP (at 1986-88 prices) in the case of developing countries. On the other hand, the limit is 5% for a developed economy. This limit is called the de minimis level of support. It is thus minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing countries.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Option (d) isthe correct answer.

Capital Account: After the recommendations of the S.S.Tarapore Committee (1997) on Capital Account Convertibility, India has Been moving in the direction of allowing full convertibility in this account ,but with required precautions. India is still a country of partial convertibility (40:60) in the capital account, but inside this overall policy, enough reforms have been made and to certain levels of foreign exchange requirements, it is an economy allowing full capital account convertibility0

(i) Indian corporate are allowed full convertibility in the automatic route upto $ 500 million overseas ventures (investment by Ltd. companies in foreign countries allowed) per annum.

(ii) Indian corporate are allowed to prepay their external commercial borrowings (ECBs) via automatic route if the loan is above$ 500million per annum.

(iii) Individuals are allowed to invest in foreign assets,shares, etc., upto the level of $ 2,50,000 per annum.

(iv) anunlimited amount of gold is allowed to be imported (this is equal to allowing full convertibility in capital account via current account route, but not feasible for everybody). The Second Committee on the Capital Account Convertibility

(CAC) - againchairedbyS.S.Tarapore - handedoverits reportinSeptember 2006 on which the RBI/the government is having consultations. No target has been set for full convertibility of capital account.

Changes in the price of foreign exchange under flexible exchange rates are referred to as currency depreciation or appreciation. For instance, if the equilibrium Rupee-Dollar exchange rate was Rs.65 and now it has become Rs.70 per dollar, then the Rupee has depreciated against the dollar.

By contrast a currency appreciates when it becomes more expensive in terms of foreign currency. Thus statement 1 is correct.

• Lending by a commercial bank for certain sectors which are identified as “priority sector” by the central bank (Reserve Bank of India) is called as priority sector lending.

• Priority sector lending (PSL) should constitute 40 per cent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit ANBC or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher.

• To the extent of shortfall in the achievement of target, banks may be required to invest in Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) established with National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and other Funds with NABARD or National Housing Bank (NHB) or Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) or Micro Units Development Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA Ltd)., as decided by the Reserve Bank from time to time, or purchase priority sector lending certificates (PSLC).

• It is applicable on Domestic Scheduled Banks excluding Small Finance Banks and Regional Rural Banks, and also to Foreign Banks with more than 20 branches.

• Priority Sector includes the following categories:

  (i) Agriculture

  (ii) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

  (iii) Export Credit

  (iv) Education

  (v) Housing

  (vi) Social Infrastructure

  (vii) Renewable Energy

  (viii) Others

• Examples of Loans under PSL:

  • Farm Credit which will include short-term crop loans and medium/long-term credit to farmers, agriculture Infrastructure and ancillary activities etc., loans to distressed farmers, loans under Kisan Credit Card Scheme.

  • Loans to corporate farmers, farmers' producer organizations/companies of individual farmers, partnership firms and co-operatives of farmers directly engaged in agriculture and allied activities, viz., dairy, fishery, animal husbandry, poultry, bee-keeping and sericulture up to an aggregate limit of ₹ 2 crores per borrower etc.

  • Loans to Khadi and Village industries, outstanding deposits with Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) and Micro Units Development Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA Ltd.) on account of priority sector shortfall etc.

  • Loans for export subject to a sanctioned limit of up to ₹ 25 crores per borrower to units having turnover of up to ₹ 100 crores.

  • Loans to individuals up to Rs. 10 lakh for Education. o Loans to individuals up to ₹ 28 lakh in metropolitan centres (with a population of ten lakh and above) and loans up to ₹ 20 lakh in other centres for purchase/construction of a dwelling unit per family provided the overall cost of the dwelling unit in the metropolitan centre and at other centres should not exceed ₹ 35 lakh and ₹ 25 lakh respectively, loans for repairs to the house, bank loans to any governmental agency for construction of dwelling units or for slum clearance and rehabilitation of slum dwellers subject to a ceiling of ₹ 10 lakh per dwelling unit etc.

  • Bank credit to Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) extended for on-lending to individuals and also to members of Self Help Group (SHGs)/joint Liability Groups (JLGs) for water and sanitation facilities etc.

  • Loans to minorities, women, scheduled caste and scheduled tribes, small and marginal farmers, self-help groups, cottage industries etc. Overdrafts upto ₹ 5,000/- under Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) accounts, provided the borrower’s household annual income does not exceed ₹ 100,000/- for rural areas and ₹ 1,60,000/- for non-rural areas.

In News : As per the latest reports submitted by banks the total number of Jan Dhan accounts have crossed 50 crore as on 9th August 2023

Statements 1 and 2 are not correct : PMJDY was announced by Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi in his Independence Day address on 15th August 2014

• PMJDY offers multiple advantages to account holders such as a bank account without requirement of minimum balance, free of cost RuPay debit cards with inbuilt accident insurance of Rs. 2 lakh and overdraft facility of up to Rs. 10,000.

Statement 3 is correct : PMJDY accounts are eligible for Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), Atal Pension Yojana (APY), Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA) scheme.

• The Basel Accords are a set of agreements set by the Basel Committee on Bank Supervision (BCBS), which provides recommendations on banking regulations in regard to capital risk, market risk, and operational risk. The purpose of the accords is to ensure that financial institutions have enough capital on account to meet obligations and absorb unexpected losses. The Basel Committee has issued three sets of regulations which are known as Basel-I, II, and III.
• In Basel-I norms the capital adequacy ratio was agreed upon—a requirement was imposed upon the banks to maintain a certain amount of free capital to their assets cushion against probable losses in investments and loans.
• The capital adequacy ratio is the percentage of total capital to the total risk—weighted asset. CAR, a measure of a bank’s capital, is expressed as a percentage of a bank’s risk-weighted credit exposures: CAR= Total of Tier 1 & Tier 2 capitals ÷ Risk-Weighted Assets.
• The Reserve Bank of India decided in April 1992 to introduce a risk-asset ratio system for banks (including foreign banks) in India as a capital adequacy measure in line with the Capital Adequacy Norms prescribed by Basel Committee. It was aimed at Improving the banking sector’s ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress.
• Market risk refers to the risk to a bank resulting from movements in market prices in particular changes in interest rates, foreign exchange rates, and equity and commodity prices. In simpler terms, it may be defined as the possibility of loss to a bank caused by changes in the market variables.
• Credit risk is most simply defined as the potential that a bank’s borrower or counterparty may fail to meet its obligations in accordance with agreed terms.
• Currently, Basel III norms are implemented in India with effect from April 1, 2013.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• The nature of India’s foreign trade has changed over the years. Though there has been an increase in the total volume of imports and export, the value of imports continued to be higher than that of exports. In 1950-51, India’s external trade was worth Rs.1,214 crore, which rose to Rs. 44,29,762 crore in 2016-17.

• Changing Pattern of the Composition of India’s Exports:

  • The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been undergoing a change over the years. The share of agriculture and allied products has declined, whereas, shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have increased.

  • The share of agricultural and allied products export in India's total exports during the last four decades has, however, been declining continuously. It came down from 44 per cent in 1960-61 to 12.3 per cent in 2016-17.

• Changing Patterns of the Composition of India’s Import:

  • India faced serious food shortages during the 1950s and 1960s. The major item of import at that time was foodgrain, capital goods, machinery and equipment.

  • After the 1970s, foodgrain import was discontinued due to the success of the Green revolution but the energy crisis of 1973 pushed the prices of petroleum, and import budget was also pushed up.

  • Foodgrain import was replaced by fertilisers and petroleum. Machine and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket.

  • Import of capital goods maintained a steady increase due to rising demand in the export-oriented industrial and domestic sectors. Non-electrical machinery, transport equipment, manufacturers of metals and machine tools were the main items of capital goods.

Hence, both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

Recently ,the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) announced the end of operations of its observatory Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy (SOFIA) mission. Statements 1 ,2 and 3 are correct : SOFIA is a joint program between NASA and the German Aerospace Centre (DLR), and is a telescope capable of making observations from onboard an aeroplane.

● It is a 2.7-meter infrared telescope sitting inside a Boeing 747SP aeroplane, flying at an altitude of 38,000-45,000 feet above the surface.

● It is globally unique and, with the start of regular operations in 2014.

○ It has been successfully used for scientific research during a total of approximately 800 flights.

● It was designed to observe cosmic objects in far-infrared wavelengths.

○ This allows researchers to watch star formation by looking through huge, cold clouds of gas

○ The project has generated 309 scientific studies.

○ In 2020, SOFIA discovered water molecules (H2O) on the sun-facing side of the Moon.

○ In 2019, SOFIA also discovered helium hydride — the first molecule formed in the Universe almost 14 billion years ago.

○ SOFIA also identified atmospheric circulation patterns in Jupiter.

○ It also mapped the magnetic field within G47, one of the Milky Way’s spiral arms.

What is a clone?

• A clone is a living organism (such as a plant or animal), which shares the same genetic information as another organism. However, their characteristics can be affected by random mutations which occur in their DNA during development in the womb or by the environment that they grow up in, so, although clones have the same DNA, they may not look the same or behave in the same way.

• While some clones can be found in nature, it is also possible for scientists to create a clone or identical copy of an organism. It is important to understand that a cloned animal is not the same as a genetically modified animal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• A cloned animal shares the same DNA as another animal, while a genetically modified animal has had a change made to its DNA, but does not share its DNA with any other animals. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Scientists can also use bacteria or viruses to replicate or clone individual DNA sequences that they are interested in. This is known as molecular or DNA cloning.

Option d is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: Space-based internet can provide low cost internet to everywhere on Earth, even to remote areas, or places with difficult terrain, where it is difficult to set up cables or mobile towers. Signals from satellites in space can overcome this obstacle easily.

• Statement 2 is correct: It can increase light pollution on Earth as light reflected from these man-made satellites can interfere with and be mistaken for light coming from other heavenly bodies.

• Statement 3 is correct: Satellites used in space based internet are placed in the low Earth orbit (LEO), around 200-2000 km from the Earth’s surface. Low and medium earth orbits lie at considerably lower altitudes than the geostationary orbit. This reduces the latency or the time lag of the internet signals.

• The key difference in the newly envisaged space-based internet services and the older ones:

  • While most of the existing systems use satellites in geostationary orbit, the new space-based internet services will be provided from constellations of satellites placed in low-earth or medium-earth orbits.

• Advantage: Low and medium earth orbits lie at considerably lower altitudes than the geostationary orbit. This reduces the latency or the time lag of the internet signals. Latency refers to the time lag between a user seeking data, and the server sending that data. While the older systems have a time latency of about 600 ms, the new systems will have latency of about 20-30 ms, which is close to what is provided by the traditional internet systems at present on the earth.

• Disadvantages:

  • More number of satellites needed: Since, lower the altitude of satellite, lower is the area on Earth it can cover, the number of satellites needed in the low and medium earth orbits are higher. Another reason contributing to increase in the number of satellites needed for the new space-based internet systems is that the time for which a particular satellite will remain at a location is much less, thus making it necessary that there are a greater number of satellites in the orbits to provide uninterrupted internet services.

  • Problem of Space debris: Such higher number of satellites in Earth’s orbit can greatly contribute of space debris problem.

  • Light Pollution: Light pollution is excessive, misdirected, or obtrusive artificial (usually outdoor) light. Light reflected from these satellites can be confused for light coming from the heavenly bodies by the astronomers. An American company, Space-x has been aiming to put close to 42,000 satellites in low-earth orbit as part of its Starlink project. The Starlink project aims to provide global space internet by 2021. Other companies also aim to provide space-based internet services.

Option (c) is the correct answer

All organisms are made of small microscopic units called cells. A cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of an organism. Each cell of an organism performs certain functions such as nutrition, transport, excretion and reproduction. To perform these functions, the cell needs energy. The food has stored energy, which is released during respiration. Therefore, all living organisms respire to get energy from food. During breathing, we breathe in air.

The air we breathe in is transported to all parts of the body and ultimately to each cell. In the cells, oxygen in the air helps in the breakdown of food. Statement 1 is incorrect. The process of breakdown of food in the cell with the release of energy is called cellular respiration. Cellular respiration takes place in the cells of all organisms. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. In the cell, the food (glucose) is broken down into carbon dioxide and water using oxygen.

When breakdown of glucose occurs with the use of oxygen it is called aerobic respiration. Food can also be broken down, without using oxygen. This is called anaerobic respiration. Breakdown of food releases energy.

• The rusting of iron can be prevented by painting, oiling, greasing, galvanizing, chrome plating, anodizing or making alloys.

• Galvanization is a method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of zinc. The galvanized article is protected against rusting even if the zinc coating is broken.

• Alloying is a very good method of improving the properties of a metal. We can get the desired properties by this method.

• Chrome plating (less commonly chromium plating), often referred to simply as chrome, is a technique of electroplating a thin layer of chromium onto a metal object. The chromed layer can be decorative, provide corrosion resistance, ease cleaning procedures, or increase surface hardness.

• Anodising is an electrolytic process for producing thick oxide coatings, usually on aluminium and its alloys. The oxide layer is typically 5 to 30μm in thickness and is used to give improved surface resistance to wear and corrosion, or as a decorative layer. Hence the correct option is ©.

Option d is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: Bile is a complex fluid containing water, electrolytes and organic molecules like bile acids, cholesterol, phospholipids and bilirubin that flows through the biliary tract into the small intestine. Bile contains bile acids, which are critical for digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins in the small intestine.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Bile is secreted by the liver of most vertebrates, that aids in the digestion of lipids in the small intestine. In humans, it is secreted by the liver, and stored and concentrated in the gallbladder.

• Statement 3 is correct: The food coming from the stomach is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzyme to act. Bile accomplishes this. Bile salts break- down larger globules of fats into smaller globules increasing the efficiency of enzyme action. The liver is an organ only found in vertebrates which detoxifies various metabolites, synthesizes proteins and produces biochemicals necessary for digestion. In humans, it is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, below the diaphragm. Its other roles in metabolism include the regulation of glycogen storage, decomposition of red blood cells and the production of hormones. In vertebrates, the gallbladder is a small hollow organ where bile is stored and concentrated before it is released into the small intestine. In humans, the pear-shaped gallbladder lies beneath the liver, although the structure and position of the gallbladder can vary significantly among animal species. It receives and stores bile produced by the liver, via the common hepatic duct and releases it via the common bile duct into the duodenum, where the bile helps in the digestion of fats.

None of the pairs are correctly matched.

• Nebulae are enormous clouds of gas and dust in interstellar space.
• Transients refer to astronomical phenomena with durations of fractions of a second to weeks or years. Typically they are extreme, short-lived events associated with the total or partialdestruction of an astrophysical object.
• A supernova is the colossal explosion of a star. It happens when a star has reached the end of its life and explodes in a brilliant burst of light

The Human Cell Atlas is an open global initiative, founded in 2016, that charts the cell types in the healthy body, across time from development to adulthood, and eventually to old age.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

● Atlas will facilitate the development of better drugs and more accurate predictions of unintended toxicity.

● It will also aid regenerative medicine — the process of replacing, engineering or regenerating human cells, tissues or organs to establish normal function. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

IndiGen Project

● This programme, an initiative of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research’s (CSIR), is about undertaking whole genome sequencing of thousands of individuals representing diverse ethnic groups from India.

● It is an independent project of CSIR. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• Of the five states, the matter can be in, the Bose-Einstein condensate is perhaps the most mysterious. Gases, liquids, solids, and plasmas were all well studied for decades, if not centuries; Bose- Einstein condensates weren't created in the laboratory until the 1990s.

• A Bose-Einstein condensate is a group of atoms cooled to within a hair of absolute zero. When they reach that temperature the atoms are hardly moving relative to each other; they have almost no free energy to do so. At that point, the atoms begin to clump together and enter the same energy states. They become identical, from a physical point of view, and the whole group starts behaving as though it were a single atom.

• This state was first predicted, generally, in 1924–1925 by Albert Einstein following and crediting a pioneering paper by Satyendra Nath Bose on the new field now known as quantum statistics. One application for BEC is for the building of so-called atom lasers, which could have applications ranging from atomic-scale lithography to measurement and detection of gravitational fields. Hence the correct option is (a).

Option a is correct.

• Chronologically, the following organisms evolved in the sequence given below:

1) Corals

2) Fishes

3) Birds

4) Flowering plants

• Evolution of life on Earth:

  • Unicellular and multicellular organisms

  • Age of Marine Invertebrates (early shelled organisms, Corals, first land plants, etc.)

  • Fishes (First forests, first amphibians, etc.)

  • Age of Amphibians (First reptiles, sharks, coal forming swamps, etc.)

  • Age of Reptiles (Dinosaurs abundant, early flowering plants, placental mammals, etc.)

  • Age of Mammals (spread of grassy ecosystems, modern humans, extinction of large mammals and birds during Ice age glaciations, glacial outburst floods, etc.)

DNA fingerprinting is a chemical test that shows the genetic makeup of a person or other living things.
It‘s used as evidence in courts, to identify bodies, track down blood relatives, and to look for cures for
disease.
Uses:
DNA fingerprinting most often has been used in court cases and legal matters. It can:

• Physically connect a piece of evidence to a person or rule out someone as a suspect.
• Show who your parents, siblings, and other relatives may be.
• Identify a dead body that‘s too old or damaged to be recognizable.
• DNA fingerprinting is extremely accurate. Most countries now keep DNA records on file in much the same way police keep copies of actual fingerprints.
• For criminal identification. Hence, option1 is correct.
• To resolve disputes of maternity/paternity. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• To identify mutilated remains. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• In cases of exchange of babies in a hospital ward. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• In forensic wildlife. Hence, option 5 is correct.

It also has medical uses. It can:

• Match tissues of organ donors with those of people who need transplants.
• Identify diseases that are passed down through your family.
• Help find cures for those diseases, called hereditary conditions.

• Context: The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) has been enforced by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, beginning from the announcement of the election schedule until the declaration of results.
• This code regulates the behaviour of political parties and candidates during the election period, aiming to ensure free and fair elections.
• It includes provisions regarding general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos.
• Key restrictions imposed by the MCC include prohibiting the announcement of policy decisions by the ruling party, using official positions for campaigning, combining official visits with election work, using government resources for campaigning, and making ad-hoc appointments that may influence voters.
• The MCC is not legally binding but is enforced through moral sanction or censure by the ECI.

• Context: PM Modi inaugurates the Sela Tunnel in Arunachal Pradesh, built at an altitude of 13,700 feet by the Border Roads Organisation.
• S1: The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is astatutory body under the ownership of the Ministry of Defenceof the Government of India.
• S2: TheBRO undertakes projects in India and friendly countries.These projects typically include developing roads, bridges, and airfields in hostile environments shunned by private enterprises, whether due to security concerns related to hostilities, or because of environmental challenges.
• S3: Officers and personnel from theGeneral Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) form the parent cadre of the BRO. It is also staffed by Officers and Troops drawn from theIndian Army’s Corps of Engineerson extra regimental employment (on deputation). BRO is also included in the Order of Battle of the Armed Forces, ensuring their support at any time.

• Context: The report on the Status of Leopards in India was recently released by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The leopard (IUCN: Vulnerable; CITES Appendix-I; Schedule-I in WPA), scientifically known as Panthera pardus, is the smallest member of the Big Cat family and is highly adaptable to various habitats. It is nocturnal and preys on smaller herbivores like chital and wild boar. Melanism, resulting in black skin and spots, is common but often mistaken for a different species called the black panther. Leopards inhabit a wide range from Africa to Asia, including the Indian subcontinent.

The Indian Preamble, based on theObjectives Resolution,was moved by Jawaharlal Nehruin the Constituent Assemblyon 13 December 1946and adopted on 26 November 1949. It came into force on 26 January 1950, Republic Day. During the Indian emergency, Indira Gandhi amended it to include the words“socialist,” “secular,” and “integrity.”(42nd Amendment Act of 1976).

It signifies theprinciple of popular sovereignty, emphasizing that power resideswith the citizens, not just the government.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

TheNational Research Centre on Litchi (NRCL),has successfully expandedlitchi cultivation to 19 states in India.

Litchi cultivation for commercial production has commenced in states such asAndhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, and others.

About Litchi:

• Litchi (Litchi chinensis) is a small, oval roundish fruit that isnative to Southeast Asia.It is a member of thesoapberry family (Sapindaceae) and is also known as lychee or lichee.
• Litchi is a sensitive fruit, influenced by temperature, rainfall, humidity, and soil conditions.
• The fruit primarily grows inthe foothills of the Himalayas, with Bihar alone contributing nearly 40% of India’s litchi production.

Litchi fruit contains a toxin, methylene cyclopropyl-glycine (MCPG), which is known to be fatal by causing encephalitis-related deaths. This is especially harmful when consumed by malnourished children.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

TheNational Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)has initiated the deploymentof‘UPITap and Pay’across digital payment providers.

Features of UPI tap and pay:

• Itutilizes near-field communication (NFC) technologyto capture apayee’s UPI ID or Virtual Payment Address (VPA), eliminating theneed for a camera.
• The feature can only beaccessed on phones or devices with NFC capability.
• Users needto locate the ‘Tap & Pay’ button on their UPI app, and the transaction is completed by tapping thedevice on the UPI Smart Tag/Smart QR.
• Transactions up to ₹500 are processed through UPI LITE, while those exceeding ₹500 require a UPI PIN.

Near-field communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that allows two devices to communicate when they are within 4 centimetres of each other.NFC uses magnetic field induction to enable communication.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Bhutan is a landlocked country in the Eastern Himalayas, bordered by China and India. Known as “Druk Yul” or “Land of the Thunder Dragon,” it has a constitutional monarchy with a king as the head of state and a prime minister as the head of government. Vajrayana Buddhism is the state religion, and Gangkhar Puensum is its highest peak, also the highest unclimbed mountain globally.

Earthquakes can result in Tsunamis if a large amount of water gets displaced.

Tectonic events with a strong vertical slip element are more likely to raise or lower the water column compared to horizontal slip elements”. “Thus, knowing the slip type at the early stages of the assessment can reduce false alarms and enhance the reliability of the warning systems.

Relying on seismographs and buoys attached by bottom-pressure sensors is not always the right method, asall earthquakes do not result in Tsunamis, and the buoys can detect Tsunamis only when one passes them, leaving less time to react and evacuate. In such cases, time is of the essence.

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Biofuels are liquid or gaseous fuels primarily produced from biomass, and can be used to replace or can be used in addition to diesel, petrol or other fossil fuels for transport, stationary, portable and other applications. Crops used to make biofuels are generally either high in sugar (such as sugarcane, sugarbeet, and sweet sorghum), starch (such as maize and tapioca) or oils (such as soybean, rapeseed, coconut, sunflower).

Biofuels are generally classified into three categories. They are

• First generation biofuels – First-generation biofuels are made from sugar, starch, vegetable oil, or animal fats using conventional technology. Common first-generation biofuels include Bioalcohols, Biodiesel, Vegetable oil, Bioethers, Biogas.
• Second generation biofuels – These are produced from non-food crops, such as cellulosic biofuels and waste biomass (stalks of wheat and corn, and wood). Examples include advanced biofuels like biohydrogen, biomethanol.
• Third generation biofuels – These are produced from micro-organisms like algae.

• Under NBS, the government fixed a per-kg subsidy for each fertiliser nutrient: Nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), potash (K) and sulphur (S). This was as against the earlier product-specific subsidy regime.
• Linking subsidy to nutrient content was intended to promote balanced fertilisation by discouraging farmers from applying too much urea, di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) and muriate of potash (MOP). These are fertilisers with high content of a single nutrient: Urea (46% N), DAP (46% P plus 18% N) and MOP (60% K).
• NBS was expected to induce product innovation, besides more use of complex fertilisers (having lower concentrations of N, P, K and S in different proportions) and SSP (containing only 16% P but also 11% S).

About Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary:

• It lies within theKali Tiger Reserve (KTR)(Uttara Kannada District of Karnataka) along with Anshi National Park.
• KTR is aUNESCO World Heritage Siteand global biodiversityThe reserve derives its name from theKali River, which flows through the region. The ecoregions found here, namely theNorth Western Ghats montanerainforestsand North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests.

• Kashmiri Saivism is a monistic system, also called the Trika (‘three-fold’) system expounded in Kashmir by Abhinava Gupta (993-1015 AD) who based his exposition on the teachings of earlier sages.
• He composed a number of commentaries on the now lost Sivadrishti of Somananda, from whom he was fourth in succession. Fortunately, a summary of this work was composed by Utpala, a pupil of Abhinava, entitled the Pratmhhijna Sutras.
• However, the earliest teacher was Vasugupta who lived in the 9th century and founded the Pratyahhijna school. He taught that the soul gains knowledge by means of intense yogic meditation.
• The name Trika refers to the three-fold scripture drawn from the noncanonical Agamas. The system was influenced by Samkhya, Advaita Vedanta and Pancharatra doctrines.

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